A police procedure conducted before a magistrate in which a witness identifies the accused from among a group of persons of similar description — to test the reliability of the witness's identification before trial.
Explanation
An identification parade (also called Test Identification Parade or TIP) is conducted when a witness claims to have seen the accused commit the crime but the accused was not previously known to the witness. The parade involves placing the accused among several persons of similar description and appearance, and asking the witness (without any hint or suggestion) to identify the person they saw. A TIP is conducted before a magistrate (now under BNSS provisions) and the accused may be present but should not stand out from the others. The value of TIP in evidence: courts treat TIP identification as corroborating the witness's court identification — if a witness identifies the accused in court and also identified them at the TIP earlier, the court identification is stronger. But TIP alone (without court identification) may not be sufficient for conviction.
Statutory Provision
Section 56, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 (formerly Section 54A CrPC): 'When a person is arrested on a charge of committing an offence and his identification by any other person or persons is considered necessary for the purpose of investigation of such offence, the Court, having jurisdiction, may on the request of the officer in charge of a police station, direct the person so arrested to subject himself to identification by any person or persons in such manner as the Court may deem fit.' [TIP is conducted under this provision.]
The fraudulent or dishonest use of another person's electronic signature, password, or any other unique identification feature — a criminal offence under Section 66C of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
Explanation
Identity theft in the cyber context involves using another person's digital credentials — password, OTP, biometric data, digital signature, login credentials, PAN, Aadhaar number — without authorisation, typically to commit financial fraud, access private data, or impersonate the person online. Section 66C IT Act penalises fraudulent or dishonest use of another's electronic signature, password, or unique identification feature — punishable with up to 3 years imprisonment and fine of Rs. 1 lakh. Section 66D IT Act penalises cheating by personation using communication devices (making phone calls pretending to be another person). Physical identity theft — forging identity documents — falls under BNS forgery provisions.
Statutory Provision
Section 66C, Information Technology Act, 2000 (as amended 2008): 'Whoever, fraudulently or dishonestly make use of the electronic signature, password or any other unique identification feature of any other person, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine which may extend to rupees one lakh.'
An agreement whose object or consideration is forbidden by law, would defeat any law, is fraudulent, involves injury to another person or property, or is immoral or opposed to public policy — and is therefore void.
Explanation
An illegal agreement is a subset of void agreements — all illegal agreements are void, but not all void agreements are illegal. The crucial distinction is that an illegal agreement also contaminates related or collateral transactions. Under Section 23 ICA, the consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful if it: (a) is forbidden by law; (b) is of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of any law; (c) is fraudulent; (d) involves or implies injury to the person or property of another; or (e) is immoral or opposed to public policy. Courts apply the maxim 'ex turpi causa non oritur actio' (no right of action arises from a base cause) — parties in pari delicto cannot seek court's assistance.
Statutory Provision
Section 23, Indian Contract Act, 1872: 'The consideration or object of an agreement is lawful, unless — it is forbidden by law; or is of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of any law; or is fraudulent; or involves or implies, injury to the person or property of another; or the court regards it as immoral, or opposed to public policy. In each of these cases, the consideration or object of an agreement is said to be unlawful. Every agreement of which the object or consideration is unlawful is void.'
Land, benefits arising out of land, and things permanently attached to land or buildings, as defined by the General Clauses Act 1897 and the Transfer of Property Act 1882.
Explanation
Immovable property in Indian law includes land, buildings, and things permanently attached to land. Under the Transfer of Property Act 1882, immovable property includes 'things embedded in the earth, things attached to what is embedded, standing timber, growing crops, and grass' (Section 3, TPA). The General Clauses Act 1897 Section 3(26) defines it as land, benefits arising out of land, and things attached to the earth or permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth. Transfer of immovable property requires a registered written deed if the value exceeds Rs. 100 (Section 17, Registration Act 1908).
Statutory Provision
Section 3(26), General Clauses Act, 1897: 'Immovable property shall include land, benefits to arise out of land, and things attached to the earth, or permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth.' Section 3, Transfer of Property Act, 1882 excludes standing timber, growing crops, and grass from immovable property (treating them as movable).
The constitutional process for removal of the President (Article 61) or Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts (Article 124(4)) by Parliament on the ground of violation of the Constitution or proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Explanation
Impeachment in India is a constitutional process, not an ordinary parliamentary motion. The President may be impeached under Article 61 for violation of the Constitution — by either House (not necessarily Lok Sabha alone). Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts may be removed under Article 124(4) on grounds of 'proved misbehaviour or incapacity' by a special majority of both Houses. The procedure is elaborate: an inquiry by a three-member committee (Judges Inquiry Act, 1968), recommendation, and then Parliamentary resolution. No President has ever been impeached; no Supreme Court Judge has successfully been removed, though proceedings were initiated against Justice V. Ramaswami in 1993 (motion failed as the ruling party boycotted the vote).
Statutory Provision
Article 61(1), Constitution of India: 'When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament.' Article 124(4): 'A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.'
A contract whose terms are not expressly stated in words but are inferred from the conduct, acts, or circumstances of the parties — as distinguished from an express contract where terms are openly declared.
Explanation
An implied contract arises when the conduct of the parties demonstrates mutual assent to be bound, even though no formal written or spoken agreement exists. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, acceptance need not be in words — it can be by conduct (Section 8). Implied contracts arise in two sub-forms: (a) implied-in-fact contracts — where the terms are inferred from the parties' conduct and surrounding circumstances (e.g., a customer sitting in a restaurant and eating implies agreement to pay); and (b) implied-in-law contracts (quasi-contracts) — obligations imposed by law even without any agreement, to prevent unjust enrichment (Sections 68-72 ICA).
Statutory Provision
Section 8, Indian Contract Act, 1872: 'Performance of the conditions of a proposal, or the acceptance of any consideration for a reciprocal promise which may be offered with a proposal, is an acceptance of the proposal.' Section 9: 'In so far as a proposal or acceptance of any promise is made in words, the promise is said to be express. In so far as such proposal or acceptance is made otherwise than in words, it is said to be implied.'
Dismissal of a petition or application at the admission stage — at the very threshold of the court's consideration — without issuing notice to the other side or hearing the merits, because the petition discloses no arguable case.
Explanation
An in limine dismissal occurs at the admission stage of a petition when the court determines that the petition does not disclose any prima facie ground that merits notice being issued to the other party. The court dismisses 'on the threshold' — without further proceedings. Common in: (a) Supreme Court SLP admissions — the vast majority of SLPs are dismissed in limine (at admission stage, often without reasons); (b) High Court writ admissions — petitions that clearly have no merit are dismissed at the first hearing without notice; (c) bail applications — where the offence is extremely serious and there is no ground for bail. In limine dismissals protect the other party from the burden of responding to hopeless petitions.
Statutory Provision
No specific statutory provision — in limine dismissal is a procedural practice. Order VII Rule 11 CPC (rejection of plaint): the nearest statutory equivalent, where a court may reject a plaint at the threshold if it discloses no cause of action, is time-barred, or has an insufficient court fee. For petitions before Supreme Court/High Courts, the inherent power under Section 151 CPC and Section 528 BNSS allows in limine dismissal.
Offences where criminal liability attaches before the substantive crime is completed — including attempt, abetment, and criminal conspiracy — reflecting the law's policy of preventing harm before it occurs.
Explanation
Inchoate offences (from Latin 'inchoatum' — just begun) impose criminal liability at a stage before the intended substantive crime is actually completed. They criminalise the preparatory or intermediate stages of criminal conduct, reflecting the law's interest in preventing harm before it occurs. Indian criminal law recognises three primary inchoate offences: (1) Attempt — doing an act towards commission of an offence that goes beyond mere preparation but falls short of completion (Section 62 BNS / Section 511 IPC); (2) Abetment — instigating, conspiring with, or intentionally aiding another to commit an offence (Sections 45–60 BNS), even if the substantive offence is never committed, provided some act or illegal omission occurs in pursuance of the abetment; (3) Criminal Conspiracy — an agreement between two or more persons to commit an illegal act or a legal act by illegal means (Section 61 BNS / Sections 120A–120B IPC). Criminal conspiracy is complete at the moment of agreement — no overt act is required for serious offences. Some specific offences also have dedicated inchoate provisions: Section 147 BNS (preparation to wage war); Section 310 BNS (preparation for dacoity). Punishment for inchoate offences is generally less than for the completed offence.
Statutory Provision
Section 62, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 / Section 511, Indian Penal Code, 1860 (attempt — punishment up to one-half of the maximum for the completed offence); Sections 45–60, BNS 2023 / Sections 107–120, IPC 1860 (abetment — three modes: instigation, conspiracy, intentional aid); Section 61, BNS 2023 / Sections 120A–120B, IPC 1860 (criminal conspiracy — agreement itself is the offence); Section 147, BNS 2023 / Section 122, IPC 1860 (preparation to wage war against the State); Section 310, BNS 2023 / Section 399, IPC 1860 (preparation for dacoity); Sections 17–22, Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (conspiracy, abetment, and attempt in terrorist offences); Section 3, Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (money laundering — includes attempt and assistance).
Evidence that tends to establish the guilt of the accused — circumstantial or direct evidence pointing to the accused's commission of the charged offence.
Explanation
Inculpatory evidence is evidence that the prosecution adduces to prove the accused's guilt. It may be direct (eyewitness testimony identifying the accused in the act) or circumstantial (fingerprints, motive, opportunity, last seen evidence). The prosecution must establish guilt beyond reasonable doubt using inculpatory evidence alone — or through the combination of inculpatory evidence sufficient to shift the evidential burden to the accused for specific defences. Under Indian evidence law, inculpatory parts of a mixed statement (a statement that both incriminates and exculpates) may be admissible separately from exculpatory parts, but courts consider the statement as a whole.
Statutory Provision
No direct statutory definition. Relevant provisions: Section 23 BSA (formerly Section 24 IEA) — confessions caused by inducement, threat, or promise are inadmissible (key inculpatory evidence rule); Section 25 BSA (formerly Section 27 IEA) — discovery of facts pursuant to information given by accused in police custody is admissible to the extent of the discovery (limited inculpatory use of otherwise excluded statement).
A contractual provision by which one party (the indemnitor) agrees to compensate another party (the indemnitee) for specified losses, liabilities, damages, or expenses — typically arising from breach of contract, third-party claims, or specific identified risks.
Explanation
An indemnity clause under Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is a contract of indemnity: one party promises to save the other harmless against loss caused by the promisor's conduct or third-party conduct. Unlike damages for breach (which require proving causation and loss), an indemnity clause is a direct promise to pay specified amounts upon specified trigger events. Common in: M&A (seller indemnifies buyer for warranty breaches); service contracts (service provider indemnifies client for third-party IP infringement claims); financial contracts (borrower indemnifies lender for increased costs from regulatory changes). Key negotiated points: scope of covered losses, caps (maximum liability), baskets/deductibles (minimum threshold), survival period, and whether indemnity covers first-party losses or third-party claims only.
Statutory Provision
Section 124, Indian Contract Act, 1872: 'A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person, is called a contract of indemnity.' Section 125: 'The promisee in a contract of indemnity, acting within the scope of his authority, is entitled to recover from the promisor — (1) all damages which he may be compelled to pay in any suit in respect of any matter to which the promise to indemnify applies; (2) all costs which he may be compelled to pay in any such suit...'
The defence of legal minority — a child below 7 years is absolutely incapable of committing an offence; a child aged 7-12 has a rebuttable presumption of incapacity that depends on whether the child had sufficient maturity to judge the nature and consequences of the act.
Explanation
Sections 25-26 BNS 2023 (formerly Sections 82-83 IPC) establish the 'infancy' defence: (a) Section 25 BNS (absolute defence) — a child under 7 years of age cannot be guilty of any offence, regardless of the act committed. (b) Section 26 BNS (rebuttable presumption) — a child aged 7-12 who has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequences of their conduct is not guilty of an offence. This is the doli incapax (incapable of evil) presumption — rebuttable by the prosecution showing that the child had sufficient maturity. Juvenile offenders aged 7 and above are generally tried under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.
Statutory Provision
Section 25, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 (formerly Section 82 IPC): 'Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age.' Section 26 BNS (formerly Section 83 IPC): 'Nothing is an offence which is done by a child above seven years of age and under twelve, who has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge of the nature and consequences of his conduct on that occasion.'
The unauthorised exercise of a right exclusively granted to the intellectual property owner — including unauthorised reproduction of copyrighted works, manufacture of patented inventions, use of registered trademarks, or copying of protected designs.
Explanation
Infringement is the unauthorised exercise of the IP owner's exclusive rights. Each IP right has its own infringement definition: (a) Copyright infringement (Section 51 Copyright Act): doing any act exclusively reserved for the author without licence — reproduction, communication to the public, adaptation, translation; (b) Patent infringement (Section 48 Patents Act): making, using, offering for sale, selling, or importing the patented invention without licence; (c) Trademark infringement (Section 29 Trade Marks Act): using an identical or deceptively similar mark in the course of trade for similar goods/services; (d) Design infringement (Section 22 Designs Act): applying the registered design to any article in the same class. Remedies for infringement: injunction, damages or account of profits, delivery up, and in some cases (copyright) criminal prosecution.
Statutory Provision
Section 29(1), Trade Marks Act, 1999: 'A registered trade mark is infringed by a person who, not being a registered proprietor or a person using by way of permitted use, uses in the course of trade, a mark which is identical with, or deceptively similar to, the trade mark in relation to goods or services in respect of which the trade mark is registered and in such manner as to render the use of the mark likely to be taken as being used as a trade mark.' Section 51, Copyright Act, 1957: 'Copyright in a work shall be deemed to be infringed when any person, without a licence granted by the owner of the copyright, or the Registrar of Copyrights, does anything, the exclusive right to do which is conferred upon the owner of the copyright.'